some maths
Off topic → Other → some maths
CHALLENGE
So here’s a maths problem I’ve had for an oral test that I found really cool and interesting :)
First, let’s suppose that sin(θ) ≠ 0 and cos(θ) ≠ 0 Then you can consider those 2 sums S and T
( cos^k (θ) is the same as (cos(θ))^k and θ is a real number and n is a natural number)
“Find a simple expression for S + iT and from that deduce a simple expression for S” ( i is the imaginary unit ) “What does S equals to if sin(θ) = 0 ?” ( because what you will find above doesn’t work for sin(θ) = 0 so you have to find another way around )
It’s not too hard since it’s meant for an oral test ( 4 hours written tests are much tougher than 1 hour oral tests in France <3 ) so I hope you guys can give it a try :)
Well Tsskyx, there is Euler’s identity : e^it = cos t + i sin t :)
And for PJ, yup we have those orals test also in physics, english, engineering/computer sciences and philosophy :p It usually goes like this: Me: Hello Sir Examinator: Good afernoon young man, show me the proof of Pascal’s formula dealing with binomial coefficients. Me: proceeds to prove Pascal’s formula on the blackboard Examinator: You made a mistake here. Me: proceeds to correct the mistake Examinator: Mhmm, alright. Now do that exercice. Me: omg sums with sin and cos
Full solution :D
First, ‘need to change S + iT into a compact expression c:
step 1 to step 2: S and T both got n terms so you can bring them into one big sigma sum thing step 2 to step 3: Euler’s identity: e^it = cos t + i sin t (there’s an easy proof for that if you assume that derivation rules work the same in ℂ, but if you don’t want to, there’s another proof that uses Taylor series) step 3 to step 4: the cosine and the exponential have got an exponent in common step 4 to step 5: it’s the sum the terms of a geometric sequence q^0 + q^1 + q^2 + … + q^n = (q^n+1 - 1)/(q - 1) (in France you’re taught the proof for that in highschool) step 5 to step 6: bringing the -1s into the fractions step 6 to step 7: cos^n+1 θ / cos θ = cos^n θ and then changing the whole thing into a single nice fraction step 7 to step 8: Euler’s identity again, but the cos θ from the exponential disappear with the -cos θ, so only i sin θ is left step 8 to step 9: bring the i to the front because it’s cool and 1/i = i^4 /i = i^3 = i^2 i = -i
Then you notice that S = Re(S + iT), because both S and T are sums of real numbers :p
step 2 to step 3: i cos^n+1 θ is purely imaginary so it’s real part is 0 step 3 to step 4: Euler’s identity again xd step 4 to step 5: again, the i cos((n+1)θ) term is purely imaginary, and then there are only real numbers left since i(-1) = 1
Aaaaand for that last question of the test
since cos 0 = 1
Et voilà ! \o/